NSF Specialist Training and Security Fundamentals Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is listed as a form of terrorism?
• Which duty is responsible for supervising the security force, maintaining order, carrying out the Plan of the Day, and ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners?
• Which statement captures a core principle of Zero Trust architecture?
• What is the ROC tier of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• The minimum service after MWD Handler School is measured in which unit?
• Which statement about discretionary access control (DAC) versus mandatory access control (MAC) is accurate?
• Who is the Chief of Naval Operations’ executive agent for Force Protection (FP)?
• USFF stands for which command?
• What controls help manage mobile devices in an enterprise BYOD program?
• Which additional factor is commonly included in MFA beyond the three core factors?
• Under PBIED policy, the statement that discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies using deadly force is true. Which option reflects this?
• Which position carries out the Plan of the Day?
• What is the minimum service period after MWD Handler School?
• Which role is primarily tasked to conduct criminal investigations involving UCMJ violations and other criminal acts not pursued by NCIS?
• Which organization holds responsibility for Navy Security Program course curricula?
• Which of the following is true about Restricted Areas Level 3?
• Which does encryption in transit primarily protect?
• The MA rating’s security/reaction force capability was demonstrated by which event?
• What is Single Sign-On (SSO), and how does identity federation enable it?
• Who approves the FCPON Level program?
• What is a key practice for mitigating phishing threats?
• What are the main steps of a TLS handshake and the role of certificates?
• What is the primary function of personnel assigned to Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• What is the principle of least privilege, and how is it commonly enforced?
• Which level is described as the most secure?
• What does NCF stand for?
• Which sequence correctly outlines the steps of a basic risk assessment?
• What is the purpose of PPRs?
• Who is the Center for Security Forces Course Curriculum Model Manager?
• Under PBIED policy, discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies which action?
• What is the second step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• How do RBAC and ABAC differ in terms of permission assignment?
• Which data classification level requires the most stringent handling and access controls?
• Which term best describes nonjudicial punishment proceedings?
• What is the 10th General Order?
• Where are the Strategic Weapons Facilities located?
• Data classification and labeling are used to do what?
• Which statement correctly describes MFA factors?
• Which role in an incident response team is primarily responsible for coordinating the response?
• Adjudged describes which prisoner status?
• What is the primary purpose of physical security?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Atlantic located?
• What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measure in disaster recovery planning?
• Which of the following is NOT a motivation category of terrorism as listed?
• Which statement best describes the Seawolf-class submarines?
• Which of the following is NOT a stage in the incident response lifecycle?
• Software supply chain risk management primarily focuses on?
• Who is responsible for overall good order and discipline?
• What is the minimum number of days to activate ASF during increased FPCONs?
• Which paygrades are assigned to the SWF?
• Which statement best describes the order of restricted areas from least to most secure?
• Which statement is true regarding the blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• How do stateless and stateful firewalls differ, and what features do next-generation firewalls add?
• What is network segmentation and its benefits and typical methods to implement it?
• On a high-speed support boat, who supervises all security department watch section responsibilities?
• Which hull numbers correspond to the Seawolf-class submarines?
• What best describes a nonjudicial punishment proceeding?
• Which vulnerability arises when manipulating padding reveals plaintext?
• Which statement about Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) is correct?
• Which statement accurately describes the difference between hardware security modules (HSMs) and cloud KMS in key management?
• In NIST SP 800-53, what best describes a control baseline and its importance?
• What is forward secrecy, and how do DHE/ECDHE ciphersuites provide it?
• What term best describes a tool used by personnel at all levels to identify, assess, and manage risks?
• Which term is listed as a FPCON level?
• What action did MA2 Mark Mayo take during the incident described?
• Which event contributed to the MA rating becoming security/reaction force capable?
• Which role manages the command AT and Force Protection program, trains security forces, plans and conducts security force drills, assesses security force capabilities, conducts vulnerability assessments, tactically deploys security assets to neutralize threats, conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, manages the command physical security and law enforcement program, and conducts customs inspections?
• Which duty enforces a 2-person policy within the area for ABNCP configured aircraft?
• Which detection approach identifies threats by recognizing deviations from established normal behavior?
• Why hash and salt passwords, and which algorithms are preferred?
• Which role on an incident response team focuses on communications and legal liaison during incidents?
• What is the purpose of ongoing risk monitoring and reassessment after controls are implemented?
• Which statement best describes symmetric cryptography?
• Detained refers to which prisoner status?
• Which defense protects against MITM by validating server certificates?
• If a TLS certificate fails validation, what should a compliant client do?
• Which practice applies to protecting sensitive data while it is in use?
• The coxswain is responsible for what on an HSB?
• The attack on the USS Cole occurred on which date?
• What does the ABCD model stand for?
• What does TACAMO stand for?
• In STRIDE threat-modeling, which category describes an attacker pretending to be someone else?
• Who is responsible for the certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Pacific located?
• What is the goal of a RAM program?
• Which practices are commonly used for protecting sensitive information across data at rest, in transit, and in use?
• Which approach reflects integrating security activities into the software development lifecycle?
• What does the CIA triad stand for, and how do they relate to security design?
• Which role includes protective detail, security driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles), site advances, protective surveillance, and command post functions?
• Which statement best describes FPCON Charlie?
• What is the purpose of disaster recovery and business continuity testing, and how frequently is it typically conducted?
• What is the significance of the Second MCPON John \"Jack\" Whittet?
• Which of the following is a basic key-management concept?
• In RMF, what is the purpose of continuous monitoring?
• What defensive technique reduces timing or power leakage?
• Which practice improves the integrity of security logs and monitoring through tamper-evident storage?
• Which statement represents the blank ammunition requirement for MWD training per MWD?
• Which practice is a common pitfall in password storage?
• What is the role of hardware security modules (HSMs) in key management?
• Which threat is addressed by physical security?
• Which practice enables testing of phishing awareness?
• How many steps are in the ORM process?
• Which VPN type uses TLS to secure channels and is typically accessed via standard web browsers?
• What is the rank designation for Mark Mayo?
• PPRs are designed to identify, track, assess, and neutralize what?
• Which role provides direct and indirect, individual and group counseling to no more than 40 prisoners?
• What are the two most common searches?
• Which statement emphasizes saluting officers and colors not cased?
• Which establishment was created by the Chief of Naval Operations to oversee NECF and develop new capabilities?
• What is the mission of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• When was the MA rate re-established?
• Under which TYCOM do we fall?
• Who conducts customs inspections?
• Within the cloud shared responsibility model, how should encryption be managed between customer and provider?
• Which is the most secure restricted area type?
• Which of the following is NOT a Seawolf-class submarine?
• Who sets the pace of the motorcade?
• What is the purpose of certificate revocation mechanisms such as CRL or OCSP?
• Which role is responsible for protective driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles)?
• Whose authority is independent of rank and seniority on board a HSB?
• What are the key security considerations for VPNs (remote access) and how do IPsec and TLS VPNs differ?
• Which branch is responsible for MWD veterinary services?
• Which option lists the third step in the ABCD model?
• Which branch oversees MWD veterinary services?
• Which submarines are part of the Seawolf class?
• Which zones are used at an Entry Control Point (ECP)?
• What is the required clearance level?
• Which is a key consideration in patch management?
• Which measure helps prevent untrusted apps from being installed on devices?
• Who is typically responsible for certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• In TLS, what does certificate chain validation ensure during the handshake?
• What is another name for the Naval Construction Force?
• Where is the U.S. Navy Strategic Communications Wing One located?
• Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) refers to applying ORM at what stage?
• Which statement correctly describes encryption at rest, encryption in transit, and basic key-management concepts?
• In vulnerability management, which activity is core?
• What are the components of the Deadly Force Triangle?
• What is the purpose of Anti-Terrorism (AT) measures?
• Which tool helps verify the integrity of vendor-supplied software?
• What is the minimum amount of blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• Which of the following lists are common physical security controls to protect information assets?
• What describes the duties of the Vehicle Inspection Sentry?
• What is the primary purpose of tabletop exercises in security readiness?
• Which action is NOT a listed form of terrorism?
• What is the role of the Registration Authority (RA) in a PKI system?
• Which activity is a common form of disaster recovery and business continuity testing?
• What is the first step of the ABCD model?
• Which activity assesses risks associated with external software providers?
• Which statement best differentiates authentication from authorization?
• Which control provides verification of user identity during sign-in?
• Why is certificate validation during a TLS handshake important?
• Which role handles site advances and protective surveillance?
• In the seven-step terrorist attack planning cycle, which step is Tactical Level Planning?
• What does data encryption at rest protect?
• Are contractor personnel ever assigned to perform law enforcement duties?
• Which are the main RMF steps used for securing information systems?
• What are the key differences between IDS and IPS and their typical detection approaches?
• Which statement about Restricted Areas Level 2 is true?
• Which role conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, and manages the command physical security and law enforcement program?
• Which is the least secure restricted area type?
• Which step follows Final Surveillance in the cycle?
• Which statement differentiates SIEM from EDR in cybersecurity operations?
• What is the primary goal of Data Loss Prevention?
• Which practice is essential for mobile device security in BYOD?
• Which statement accurately describes eligibility for classified information among military NSF personnel?
• Which attack uses captured data replayed to impersonate a user?
• Which is the first step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• What are the three zones in defense in depth?
• Which practice facilitates reporting phishing and security incidents?
• Which practice ensures reliable log timestamps for security monitoring?
• Who coordinates underway security matters?
• Who approves the mission of Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• In vulnerability management, what is typically the next step after asset discovery and vulnerability scanning?
• Nonjudicial punishment proceedings require what type of proceeding?
• Which of the following is a form of terrorism?
• Which statement accurately describes RBAC, ABAC, MAC, and DAC as access-control models?
• Which factors determine risk likelihood and impact in a risk assessment?
• Which ship fired 400 rounds of 16-inch projectiles in practice but deployed with only 20 rounds on board?