NSF Specialist Training and Security Fundamentals Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which practice applies to protecting sensitive data while it is in use?
• How do stateless and stateful firewalls differ, and what features do next-generation firewalls add?
• Which vulnerability arises when manipulating padding reveals plaintext?
• In STRIDE threat-modeling, which category describes an attacker pretending to be someone else?
• Why hash and salt passwords, and which algorithms are preferred?
• Which statement captures a core principle of Zero Trust architecture?
• Which role includes protective detail, security driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles), site advances, protective surveillance, and command post functions?
• What are the three zones in defense in depth?
• What controls help manage mobile devices in an enterprise BYOD program?
• Which zones are used at an Entry Control Point (ECP)?
• Nonjudicial punishment proceedings require what type of proceeding?
• Which factors determine risk likelihood and impact in a risk assessment?
• Which branch oversees MWD veterinary services?
• Who is responsible for the certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• Within the cloud shared responsibility model, how should encryption be managed between customer and provider?
• When was the MA rate re-established?
• What does data encryption at rest protect?
• What is the minimum service period after MWD Handler School?
• If a TLS certificate fails validation, what should a compliant client do?
• Which statement best describes FPCON Charlie?
• What action did MA2 Mark Mayo take during the incident described?
• Which approach reflects integrating security activities into the software development lifecycle?
• Which role in an incident response team is primarily responsible for coordinating the response?
• Which VPN type uses TLS to secure channels and is typically accessed via standard web browsers?
• Which statement correctly describes MFA factors?
• Who sets the pace of the motorcade?
• What are the components of the Deadly Force Triangle?
• Which ship fired 400 rounds of 16-inch projectiles in practice but deployed with only 20 rounds on board?
• What does the CIA triad stand for, and how do they relate to security design?
• Which statement about Restricted Areas Level 2 is true?
• Who approves the FCPON Level program?
• Which statement best differentiates authentication from authorization?
• Who is the Center for Security Forces Course Curriculum Model Manager?
• Which is the most secure restricted area type?
• The attack on the USS Cole occurred on which date?
• What is the 10th General Order?
• Which of the following is true about Restricted Areas Level 3?
• Which statement differentiates SIEM from EDR in cybersecurity operations?
• The minimum service after MWD Handler School is measured in which unit?
• What is the purpose of disaster recovery and business continuity testing, and how frequently is it typically conducted?
• Which practice ensures reliable log timestamps for security monitoring?
• Which statement accurately describes eligibility for classified information among military NSF personnel?
• What are the key differences between IDS and IPS and their typical detection approaches?
• What is the minimum number of days to activate ASF during increased FPCONs?
• Which are the main RMF steps used for securing information systems?
• Which tool helps verify the integrity of vendor-supplied software?
• In the seven-step terrorist attack planning cycle, which step is Tactical Level Planning?
• Which branch is responsible for MWD veterinary services?
• Which statement correctly describes encryption at rest, encryption in transit, and basic key-management concepts?
• Which position carries out the Plan of the Day?
• Which role on an incident response team focuses on communications and legal liaison during incidents?
• Who is responsible for overall good order and discipline?
• Which statement is true regarding the blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• Which of the following is NOT a stage in the incident response lifecycle?
• Which role handles site advances and protective surveillance?
• Which practices are commonly used for protecting sensitive information across data at rest, in transit, and in use?
• Which statement accurately describes RBAC, ABAC, MAC, and DAC as access-control models?
• Which threat is addressed by physical security?
• Which practice facilitates reporting phishing and security incidents?
• What is the role of hardware security modules (HSMs) in key management?
• Where are the Strategic Weapons Facilities located?
• Which level is described as the most secure?
• Which action is NOT a listed form of terrorism?
• In vulnerability management, which activity is core?
• Which of the following is listed as a form of terrorism?
• Who approves the mission of Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• What is the primary purpose of physical security?
• Which statement best describes the order of restricted areas from least to most secure?
• What is the role of the Registration Authority (RA) in a PKI system?
• In vulnerability management, what is typically the next step after asset discovery and vulnerability scanning?
• Which defense protects against MITM by validating server certificates?
• What does the ABCD model stand for?
• What best describes a nonjudicial punishment proceeding?
• Under which TYCOM do we fall?
• Which term best describes nonjudicial punishment proceedings?
• What describes the duties of the Vehicle Inspection Sentry?
• Which role manages the command AT and Force Protection program, trains security forces, plans and conducts security force drills, assesses security force capabilities, conducts vulnerability assessments, tactically deploys security assets to neutralize threats, conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, manages the command physical security and law enforcement program, and conducts customs inspections?
• Which additional factor is commonly included in MFA beyond the three core factors?
• Why is certificate validation during a TLS handshake important?
• Which option lists the third step in the ABCD model?
• Who conducts customs inspections?
• What is the goal of a RAM program?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Pacific located?
• Which term is listed as a FPCON level?
• Which activity is a common form of disaster recovery and business continuity testing?
• Which activity assesses risks associated with external software providers?
• Which statement about Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) is correct?
• What is Single Sign-On (SSO), and how does identity federation enable it?
• Under PBIED policy, the statement that discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies using deadly force is true. Which option reflects this?
• Which step follows Final Surveillance in the cycle?
• Which event contributed to the MA rating becoming security/reaction force capable?
• The coxswain is responsible for what on an HSB?
• What is the first step of the ABCD model?
• Data classification and labeling are used to do what?
• Which is the first step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Atlantic located?
• What are the two most common searches?
• Which duty is responsible for supervising the security force, maintaining order, carrying out the Plan of the Day, and ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners?
• Which statement represents the blank ammunition requirement for MWD training per MWD?
• What is the primary goal of Data Loss Prevention?
• What is another name for the Naval Construction Force?
• Are contractor personnel ever assigned to perform law enforcement duties?
• Which hull numbers correspond to the Seawolf-class submarines?
• What is a key practice for mitigating phishing threats?
• Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) refers to applying ORM at what stage?
• What is the primary function of personnel assigned to Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• Which role provides direct and indirect, individual and group counseling to no more than 40 prisoners?
• Who is the Chief of Naval Operations’ executive agent for Force Protection (FP)?
• The MA rating’s security/reaction force capability was demonstrated by which event?
• What is the purpose of PPRs?
• Which duty enforces a 2-person policy within the area for ABNCP configured aircraft?
• Which of the following is NOT a Seawolf-class submarine?
• What is the ROC tier of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• Which practice is essential for mobile device security in BYOD?
• What is the significance of the Second MCPON John \"Jack\" Whittet?
• Who is typically responsible for certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• Which submarines are part of the Seawolf class?
• What is forward secrecy, and how do DHE/ECDHE ciphersuites provide it?
• How do RBAC and ABAC differ in terms of permission assignment?
• In RMF, what is the purpose of continuous monitoring?
• Which statement accurately describes the difference between hardware security modules (HSMs) and cloud KMS in key management?
• What defensive technique reduces timing or power leakage?
• On a high-speed support boat, who supervises all security department watch section responsibilities?
• Which statement about discretionary access control (DAC) versus mandatory access control (MAC) is accurate?
• Which practice improves the integrity of security logs and monitoring through tamper-evident storage?
• Whose authority is independent of rank and seniority on board a HSB?
• Software supply chain risk management primarily focuses on?
• What does NCF stand for?
• What is the purpose of ongoing risk monitoring and reassessment after controls are implemented?
• What is the mission of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• What is the required clearance level?
• What is the minimum amount of blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• Which measure helps prevent untrusted apps from being installed on devices?
• Which role is primarily tasked to conduct criminal investigations involving UCMJ violations and other criminal acts not pursued by NCIS?
• Which sequence correctly outlines the steps of a basic risk assessment?
• Which data classification level requires the most stringent handling and access controls?
• Which role conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, and manages the command physical security and law enforcement program?
• Which practice enables testing of phishing awareness?
• What does TACAMO stand for?
• Which is the least secure restricted area type?
• Which of the following is a form of terrorism?
• Which of the following lists are common physical security controls to protect information assets?
• Which of the following is NOT a motivation category of terrorism as listed?
• What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measure in disaster recovery planning?
• Which statement best describes symmetric cryptography?
• Which paygrades are assigned to the SWF?
• Which organization holds responsibility for Navy Security Program course curricula?
• Who coordinates underway security matters?
• Which attack uses captured data replayed to impersonate a user?
• In TLS, what does certificate chain validation ensure during the handshake?
• What is the primary purpose of tabletop exercises in security readiness?
• Detained refers to which prisoner status?
• Which practice is a common pitfall in password storage?
• What is the rank designation for Mark Mayo?
• Which of the following is a basic key-management concept?
• What is the purpose of certificate revocation mechanisms such as CRL or OCSP?
• Which statement emphasizes saluting officers and colors not cased?
• Which statement best describes the Seawolf-class submarines?
• Under PBIED policy, discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies which action?
• What are the key security considerations for VPNs (remote access) and how do IPsec and TLS VPNs differ?
• What is the purpose of Anti-Terrorism (AT) measures?
• PPRs are designed to identify, track, assess, and neutralize what?
• What is the principle of least privilege, and how is it commonly enforced?
• What term best describes a tool used by personnel at all levels to identify, assess, and manage risks?
• Adjudged describes which prisoner status?
• USFF stands for which command?
• Which does encryption in transit primarily protect?
• How many steps are in the ORM process?
• What is network segmentation and its benefits and typical methods to implement it?
• Which establishment was created by the Chief of Naval Operations to oversee NECF and develop new capabilities?
• In NIST SP 800-53, what best describes a control baseline and its importance?
• What are the main steps of a TLS handshake and the role of certificates?
• What is the second step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• Which detection approach identifies threats by recognizing deviations from established normal behavior?
• Which is a key consideration in patch management?
• Which role is responsible for protective driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles)?
• Which control provides verification of user identity during sign-in?
• Where is the U.S. Navy Strategic Communications Wing One located?